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I have two different JSPs that the Java backend concatenates together and sends back to the same rendered HTML page.

Each JSP has its own <script> block and defines functions inside that block:

JSP #1:

<script type="text/javascript">
    function blah() { ... }
</script>

JSP #2

<script type="text/javascript">
    function foo()
    {
        blah();
    }
</script>

Like I said, the backend adds these to the HTTP response and sends them back to the browser during the same request.

When I run this page in my browser, I can tell right away that blah() is not executing when foo() is getting called. I see a console error in Firebug stating blah() is not defined. I'm wondering if blah() only has scope inside its own <script> tag, and likewise for foo(). Is that the case here, or is something else awry?

When I go to view the page source I see both script blocks and both functions. This tells me everything is being generated/rendered correctly server-side, but perhaps my approach is inherently wrong (defining the functions inside different script tags). Thanks in advance.

I have two different JSPs that the Java backend concatenates together and sends back to the same rendered HTML page.

Each JSP has its own <script> block and defines functions inside that block:

JSP #1:

<script type="text/javascript">
    function blah() { ... }
</script>

JSP #2

<script type="text/javascript">
    function foo()
    {
        blah();
    }
</script>

Like I said, the backend adds these to the HTTP response and sends them back to the browser during the same request.

When I run this page in my browser, I can tell right away that blah() is not executing when foo() is getting called. I see a console error in Firebug stating blah() is not defined. I'm wondering if blah() only has scope inside its own <script> tag, and likewise for foo(). Is that the case here, or is something else awry?

When I go to view the page source I see both script blocks and both functions. This tells me everything is being generated/rendered correctly server-side, but perhaps my approach is inherently wrong (defining the functions inside different script tags). Thanks in advance.

• javascript
• html
• jsp

Share Improve this question Follow asked Apr 23, 2012 at 23:16 IAmYourFajaIAmYourFaja 56.9k186186 gold badges485485 silver badges778778 bronze badges 2

• 2 when or how do you call foo()? – Philipp Commented Apr 23, 2012 at 23:18
• foo() is called when a user hovers their mouse over an element. I can verify that it gets called by replacing its contents with an alert("") statement. – IAmYourFaja Commented Apr 23, 2012 at 23:37

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3 Answers 3

Sorted by: Reset to default 5

all of them are global. they can see each other. the problem is when they get defined and call each other.

you should define and call them in this order:

1. bar
2. foo
3. call foo
   • foo executed and calls bar
   • bar is executed

You can call function like this:

  (function($) {

     var namespace;
         namespace = {
                     something : function() {
                                             alert('hello there!');
                                            },
                      bodyInfo : function() {
                                             alert($('body').attr('id'));
                                            }
                     };
         window.ns = namespace;
    })(this.jQuery);

   $(function() {
              ns.something();
              ns.bodyInfo();
   });

The only thing that defines scope in JavaScript is a function, so your problem is not a scoping issue. You most probably are not calling foo(), you call it before blah() is defined, or you have a syntax error somewhere. Maybe you can post your whole HTML page so we can see what's going on.

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